Loic Grenie on Sat, 10 Mar 2007 17:41:11 +0100 |
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Desired behaviour ? |
I'm just wondering if there is a strong reason why 1.*I*I has an imaginary part (equal to 0., but it's there). For instance neither I*I*1. nor 1.*(I*I) have any imaginary part. Thanks, Loïc